Bruce, what I meant was this-
Going all the way back, the original articles of incorporation stated that the board members were to be elected annually by the members.
Those votes apparently never happened. It may be that the board at that time modified the NHRA bylaws to eliminate these annual votes, or they may have decided just not to follow the bylaws and not hold the votes.
As you have probably seen, by today's California code, making a bylaw modification that modifies members voting rights without having a member vote to approve the change would be illegal, as well would be not conducting the company in compliance with the bylaws (ie not conducting the votes).
But was a member voting right modification like this illegal under the California code of the 50's when it occurred?
And if it was illegal then, what are the potential ramifications of that today?
Only a pretty experienced attorney in this area could answer those questions, perhaps the individuals behind the IRS letter have also had their attorney look into this.
Paul I would venture to say by all accounts that I've heard on tthis forum it probably did not happen for whatever reason. If that is the case members have been hoodwinked for well over 60 yrs, I would think that voting rights by the members would be a tenet that was good in 1951 and just as good in 2011. But you are right the expertise of a good coporate attorney would be needed to make a determination if that was truly the case. It would be interesting to know though.